Drill 1: $E(X) = 0(0.5) + 1(0.5) = 0.5$. $E(X^2) = 0(0.5) + 1(0.5) = 0.5$. $\operatorname{Var}(X) = 0.5 - 0.25 = 0.25$, so $\sigma = 0.5$. Note $E(X^2) = E(X)$ here only because $0^2 = 0$ and $1^2 = 1$; that coincidence does not generalise.
Drill 2: $\mu = 10(0.7) + 20(0.3) = 7 + 6 = 13$. $E(X^2) = 100(0.7) + 400(0.3) = 70 + 120 = 190$. $\operatorname{Var}(X) = 190 - 169 = 21$, so $\sigma = \sqrt{21} \approx 4.583$.
Drill 3: $E(X) = \tfrac{1+2+\dots+8}{8} = \tfrac{36}{8} = 4.5$. The shortcut is valid because every value carries the identical weight $\tfrac{1}{8}$, so the weighted average $\sum x \cdot \tfrac{1}{8}$ factorises to $\tfrac{1}{8}\sum x$, which is the ordinary average.
Drill 4: $E(X) = 7(1) = 7$ and $\operatorname{Var}(X) = (7-7)^2(1) = 0$. In words: the variable is not random at all. There is no spread because there is nothing to spread — every trial gives 7. A variance of zero always means the variable is a constant.
Drill 5: The variance is an average of squared quantities, $\sum (x - \mu)^2 p(x)$, in which every squared deviation is non-negative and every probability is non-negative. A sum of non-negative terms cannot be negative, so a negative variance is impossible and signals an arithmetic error, most often subtracting $E(X^2)$ from $\mu^2$ instead of the other way round.
Q1 (3 marks): (a) $E(X) = 1(0.1) + 2(0.2) + 3(0.4) + 4(0.3) = 0.1 + 0.4 + 1.2 + 1.2 = 2.9$ [1]. (b) $E(X^2) = 1(0.1) + 4(0.2) + 9(0.4) + 16(0.3) = 0.1 + 0.8 + 3.6 + 4.8 = 9.3$. So $\operatorname{Var}(X) = 9.3 - 2.9^2 = 9.3 - 8.41 = 0.89$ [1]. (c) $\sigma = \sqrt{0.89} \approx 0.943$. The distribution is centred at $2.9$, with individual values typically falling about $0.94$ away from that centre — which is a substantial spread relative to a range of only 1 to 4 [1].
Q2 (3 marks): (a) $C$ takes the value $8000$ with probability $0.02$, $1000$ with probability $0.05$, and $0$ with probability $1 - 0.02 - 0.05 = 0.93$ [1]. (b) $E(C) = 8000(0.02) + 1000(0.05) + 0(0.93) = 160 + 50 = 210$, so the expected payout is $\$210$ [1]. (c) Expected profit per policy is $300 - 210 = \$90$. The insurer is still exposed because the expected value describes a long-run average across many policies, not any single year: in a given year on a single policy the payout is $\$0$ with probability $0.93$ but $\$8000$ with probability $0.02$, and $\$8000$ dwarfs the $\$300$ premium. Insurers manage this by writing many independent policies, which is precisely the condition under which the average becomes reliable [1].
Q3 (3 marks): (a) The mean locates the centre of each distribution and here it is identical, so it cannot distinguish the lines at all. The standard deviation measures typical departure from that centre, and line B's is ten times line A's, so B is far more variable [1]. (b) The tolerance of $0.5$ mm is $\tfrac{0.5}{0.2} = 2.5$ standard deviations for line A but only $\tfrac{0.5}{2.0} = 0.25$ standard deviations for line B. A tolerance measured in standard deviations is the meaningful comparison, and line A's is ten times wider, so line A will produce far more acceptable components. This argument uses only that both distributions are centred at 50, not their shape [1]. (c) The statement would be right if the quantity of interest were the total or average output over a very large number of components — for instance if the components were being melted down by weight, or if the manager were forecasting total material used. There the individual variation averages out and only the mean matters. It is wrong whenever each component is judged individually against a tolerance [1].